Though agreeing with Descartes that consciousness and extension are qualitatively distinct, Spinoza's dual-aspect theory denied that consciousness and extension are inherent characteristics of two finite substances, treating them instead as attributes of the infinite substance of a transcendent (5) intelligence. While mental occurrences can dictate only other mental occurrences and physical motions can determine only other physical motions, mind and body exist in pre-established coordination, since the same self -consistent intelligence establishes affinities and connections within both classes. Another alternative, psychophysical parallelism, retains both the dualism of (10) mind and body and the notion of a regular correlation between mental and physical events, but avoids any assumption of causal mind-body connection, direct or indirect. Psychophysical parallelism eschews interactionism, stating that mental and physical could not possibly affect one another, and also rejects occasionalism and dual-aspect theory on the grounds that no third entity, (15) including a transcendent intelligence, could be responsible for such vastly different effects. Parallelists accept only pure correlations, not causation, between mental and physical events. According to the passage, psychophysical parallelists would be LEAST likely to agree with which of the following views attributed to Spinoza?