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【单选题】
A 43-year-old man with a distant history of intravenous drug use is now status post a right inguinal hernia repair and is complaining of severe groin pain on the side of the operation. All of the following are appropriate maneuvers exceptA.
Evaluate the patient for necrotizing fasciitis
B.
Reassure the patient that his use of preoperative suboxone that morning may have blocked his postoperative response to narcotics
C.
Allow the nurse to administer a postoperative parenteral nonopioid analgesic
D.
Discharge the patient with a prescription for pain medication and a plan for follow-up in 2 weeks
E.
Perform a nerve block with local anesthetics
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